how HPV was used to cure cancer? a. The HPV induced a type IV hypersensitivity immune response b. The HPV induced a type III hypersensitivity immune response c. The HPV induced a type II hypersensitivity immune response d. The HPV induced a type I hypersensitivity immune response e. The HPV induced a type IV autoimmune response

how HPV was used to cure cancer? a. The HPV induced a type IV hypersensitivity immune response b. The HPV induced a type III hypersensitivity immune response c. The HPV induced a type II hypersensitivity immune response d. The HPV induced a type I hypersensitivity immune response e. The HPV induced a type IV autoimmune response

Essentials of Pharmacology for Health Professions

7th Edition

ISBN:9781305441620

Author:WOODROW

Publisher:WOODROW

Chapter14: Antineoplastic Drugs

Section: Chapter Questions

Problem 4CRQ

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What is the predicted outcome if a patient receives an allogeneic hematopoietic cell transplant from a family member, and then receives a kidney transplant several months later from the same donor? a. Acute kidney rejection because the patient’s hematopoietic system has been fully reconstituted with patient-derived alloreactive T cells and NK cells. b. Graft-versus-host disease mediated by alloreactive T cells in the transplanted kidney. c. Secondary immune response by patient-derived memory T lymphocytes that were initially activated by the hematopoietic cell transplant. d. The patient is tolerant to alloantigens on the kidney graft and does not require long-term immunosuppressive drugs.
In the secondary response, the IgG levels rise much faster than they did during the first antibody response. Why is this?Choose one: A. The plasma cells that were produced for the first response have a very long half-life, so they are able to produce antibodies for the second response without activation of other B cells. B. Memory B cells are capable of producing antibodies directly, so there is no need to spend time differentiating them into plasma cells. C. By the secondary response, there are B cells and T cells that have differentiated into plasma cells, giving more total plasma cells to work with. D. Memory B cells are present for the secondary response. Those cells are much easier to activate than the naive B cells; therefore, the response occurs much more quickly and on a larger scale.
A 41-year-old man has a penetrating injury to his right eye. A month later he has worsening vision in his left eye. Through which of the following immunoogic mechanisms has his vision in the left eye been reduced? a.Release of sequestered antigens b.Hypogammaglobulinemia c.Molecular mimicry d.T lymphocyte anergy
Explain why each choice (a-d) is correct or incorrect. Allergens differ from antigens because a. Allergens produce an abnormally large immune response to what is an otherwise harmless particle. b. Allergens do not involve the leucocytes, they simple stimulate the inflammatory response. c. Allergens are only active seasonally and are generally harmless to the body. d. Allergens are primarily plant derived while antigens are bacterial or viral in nature.
consider the figure below that shows time on the X axis and number of antigen- specific adaptive immune cells on the Y- axis. This figure provides a general accounting of an adaptive immune response that can be broken down into five stages.a. what is happening in stages 1 &2 that increases the number of cells ? b. what is happening to cells after 2 to cause a reduction of cell numbers? Phases of adaptive immune responses Recognition phase Activation phase Antigen elimination Contraction (homeostasis) Memory Antibody- producing Effector T cell Elimination of antigens lymphocyte Differentiation Humoral immunity Cell-mediated mmunity Surviving memory cells Antigen presenting cell Apoptosis Clonal expansion Naive T lymphocyte Naive B lymphocyte Days after 14 antigen exposure Need for proliferation and differentiation results in delay (typically 4-7 days) in the adaptive immune response
Which ONE of the following flow cytometry results is most likely in a patient with chronic lymphocytic leukaemia? Select one: A.CD11c+, CD25+, CD103+ B.CD5+, CD19+, CD20+ (dim) C.Surface immunoglobulin+, CD5+, cyclin D1+ D.CD10+, CD20+, FMC7+
Which of the following explains why dendritic cells, but not macrophages or B cells, contribute to the activation of naive T cells? a. Macrophages and B cells do not express MHC class II molecules until they are activated. b. Dendritic cells upregulate B7 after engaging innate immunity receptors at sites of infection. c. Dendritic cells express higher levels of CTLA4. d. Macrophages and B cells do not process antigen. e. Dendritic cells use Toll-like receptors to hold antigen in place for extended periods of time.
There is a second, delayed spike of IgM in the secondary response. Why might this be occurring?Choose one: A. When there is a lot of IgG antibody floating around in the bloodstream, some of the monomers link up into IgM pentamers. B. Some IgM is being made by the plasma cells producing the IgG antibodies. C. New naive B cells have been able to activate and produce a new primary response. D. Some of the plasma cells are switching back to IgM production after producing other isotypes for a while.
Which one of the following most correctly describes vaccines containing live, attenuated pathogens? A.They are administered by injection. B.They provide little cell-mediated immunity. C.There is no possibility for reversion to pathogenic form. D.Pathogen does not multiply in human hosts E.They provide extended, sometimes life-long immunity.
The following are characteristics of innate immune receptors except A. trigger immediate response B. specificity inherited in the genome C. recognize a broad class of pathogens D. require gene rearrangement E. all of the above
Which of the following pairs is mismatched? a. plasma cell: mediation of phagocytosis and killing of microorganisms in the plasma b. megakaryocyte: formation of platelets c. dendritic cell: activation of adaptive immune responses d. natural killer cell: develops from a common lymphoid progenitor e. neutrophil: formation of pus f. regulatory T cell: inhibition of T-cell activity.
Which of the following best defines MHC restriction? Select one: a. The TCR recognizes a particular epitope in the context of a specific MHC molecule. b. Any given MHC molecule is able to bind a wide variety of epitopes. C. The TCR recognizes only the MHC molecule. Od. The TCR recognizes the epitope bound to any MHC molecule having the correct motif. Oe. A TCR may bind to either an MHC Class I or MHC Class II molecule along with the bound epitope.