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China Vs China

Decent Essays

Could the Eurocentric notion of China being “inferior”or having “failed” at achieving modernity constitute an overwhelming misunderstanding of China as a whole? Is the “failure” narrative evidence of how the propagators of the European academy use their understandings to pervert the very essence of true Chinese history? If it wasn’t intentional, could the West have ‘failed’ to understand the complex cultural and socioeconomic dynamics of China? Historians who adhere to the foundations of Eurocentric thought, in establishing the ‘China v. Europe’ comparative analysis, have often cited claims that European advancements throughout history were not only ‘unique’ but are in fact the precedent for modernity. In establishing this precedent, the West …show more content…

Works by Eurocentric historians have often suggested that Europe’s uniqueness and superiority primarily stems from its scientific innovations. According to the Director of the Confucius Institute, Roger Hart, the proclaimed historian of science, Alistair Crombie, had once asserted that “the history of science as we have it is the history of ‘a vision and an argument initiated in the West by ancient Greek philosophers, mathematicians and physicians’”; “it is ‘a specific vision, created within Western culture’”; [and] it was based on the Greeks’.” Crombie goes on to assert that “China had no Euclid, and did not adopt his scientific style when that became available.” The problem with Crombie’s failure narrative is that it assumes that China either didn’t have or didn’t establish a scientific foundation on its own, or that China, if it had a scientific foundation, it wasn’t sufficient or advanced enough to even match European scientific precedent. So did China have science? Well, research that had began in the 1940s increasingly provided considerable evidence that in China there had been practices and theories that resemble that of ‘science in the west’. But how is a Eurocentric historian supposed to comprehend ‘Chinese science’ when their understood meaning of science is inherently European? Roger Hart explains, “the assertion of the absence of sciences everywhere else, rested on little …show more content…

Ricci was born in 1552 and has written accounts of his immersion during his mission in Ming dynasty China. Historian Nigel Cameron, had documented thirteen centuries of European travels to China, which included Matteo Ricci’s travels as well. According to Cameron, Matteo Ricci was “the only one to whom the Chinese accorded unreservedly their respect as a scholar in their own language and literature.” So It seems that there is a more effective way of grasping a full if not some understanding of the cultural dynamics of China. Now especially with regards to the comprehension of different cultures it may be hard to do so through the Euro-lense or through a European methodological way of interpretation. Explaining and comprehending the Chinese culture through the English language may result in failure. Even Matteo Ricci, admitted that the Chinese language “is totally different from Greek or German.” Western historians have misinterpreted non-West histories, in fact it is common. But, to what extent does this misinterpretation lie? It lies with the teleological

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